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NONE.filter - rwp John:12:34:

rwp@John:1:29 @{On the morrow} (\ti epaurion\). Locative case with \hmri\ (day) understood after the adverb \epaurion\. "Second day of this spiritual diary" (Bernard) from verse 19|. {Seeth Jesus coming} (\blepei ton Isoun erchomenon\). Dramatic historical present indicative (\blepei\) with vivid present middle participle (\erchomenon\). Graphic picture. {Behold the Lamb of God} (\ide ho amnos tou theou\). Exclamation \ide\ like \idou\, not verb, and so nominative \amnos\. Common idiom in John (1:36; strkjv@3:26|, etc.). For "the Lamb of God" see strkjv@1Corinthians:5:7| (cf. strkjv@John:19:36|) and strkjv@1Peter:1:19|. The passage in strkjv@Isaiah:53:6f.| is directly applied to Christ by Philip in strkjv@Acts:8:32|. See also strkjv@Matthew:8:17; strkjv@1Peter:2:22f.; strkjv@Hebrews:9:28|. But the Jews did not look for a suffering Messiah (John:12:34|) nor did the disciples at first (Mark:9:32; strkjv@Luke:24:21|). But was it not possible for John, the Forerunner of the Messiah, to have a prophetic insight concerning the Messiah as the Paschal Lamb, already in strkjv@Isaiah:53|, even if the rabbis did not see it there? Symeon had it dimly (Luke:2:35|), but John more clearly. Songs:Westcott rightly. Bernard is unwilling to believe that John the Baptist had more insight on this point than current Judaism. Then why and how did he recognize Jesus as Messiah at all? Certainly the Baptist did not have to be as ignorant as the rabbis. {Which taketh away the sin of the world} (\ho airn tn hamartian tou kosmou\). Note singular \hamartian\ not plural \hamartias\ (1John:3:5|) where same verb \air\, to bear away, is used. The future work of the Lamb of God here described in present tense as in strkjv@1John:1:7| about the blood of Christ. He is the Lamb of God for the world, not just for Jews.

rwp@John:12:34 @{Out of the law} (\ek tou nomou\). That is, "out of the Scriptures" (10:34; strkjv@15:25|). {The Christ abideth forever} (\ho Christos menei eis ton aina\). Timeless present active indicative of \men\, to abide, remain. Perhaps from strkjv@Psalms:89:4; strkjv@110:4; strkjv@Isaiah:9:7; strkjv@Ezekiel:37:25; strkjv@Daniel:7:14|. {How sayest thou?} (\ps legeis su;\). In opposition to the law (Scripture). {The Son of man} (\ton huion tou anthrpou\). Accusative case of general reference with the infinitive \hupsthnai\ (first aorist passive of \hupso\ and taken in the sense of death by the cross as Jesus used it in verse 32|). Clearly the crowd understand Jesus to be "the Son of man" and take the phrase to be equivalent to "the Christ." This is the obvious way to understand the two terms in their reply, and not, as Bernard suggests, that they saw no connexion between "the Christ" (the Messiah) and "the Son of man." The use of "this" (\houtos\) in the question that follows is in contrast to verse 32|. The Messiah (the Son of man) abides forever and is not to be crucified as you say he "must" (\dei\) be.