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CR18Day_03 @ nkjv@Mark:2 @ RandyP comments: These are all facts that anyone remotely present to Capernaum at that time would know and be able to attest to. Word of these events undoubtedly spread through the entire region. Multitudes of readers later in 48AD or so when Marks gospel was widely issued would still know either personally or second hand that Mark was viciously cutting through all the false information about Jesus Christ being propagated by the establishment's defense. Many of those healed for instance would still be living at this point to give their testimony. Those close to or within the the Pharisee sect or disciples of John the Baptist would be unable to refute these evidences as well.

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CR18Day_24 @ nkjv@Genesis:44 @ RandyP comments: Great concern must be raised as to whether Joseph actually divines information or not. The most logical explanation is that he is making it look like it to his brothers to continue concealing his true identity. If not the case we are struck with possibility that Joseph has learned divination from the Egyptians. In later years divination is strictly prohibited by the Law of Moses. I would imagine that even before the law God was just as offended by it as with the Law. Joseph is never confronted by God on this issue, which leads me to believe that he was not actually divining. The other alternative may be that the translation of the word into English may be misleading. My brief word study dict:strongs H5172 is showing the Hebrew word as split between the prohibited type of prognostication and the lesser observational/experiential form. In this case, that it is the cup being the object referred seems to substantiate the darker meaning; one would not simply anticipate events in the future by using a cup.