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OT-LAW.filter - rwp stinging:



rwp@Mark:8:32 @{Spake the saying openly} (\parrˆsiƒi ton logon elalei\). He held back nothing, told it all (\pƒn\, all, \rˆsia\, from \eipon\, say), without reserve, to all of them. Imperfect tense \elalei\ shows that Jesus did it repeatedly. Mark alone gives this item. Mark does not give the great eulogy of Peter in strkjv@Matthew:16:17,19| after his confession (Mark:8:29; strkjv@Matthew:16:16; strkjv@Luke:9:20|), but he does tell the stinging rebuke given Peter by Jesus on this occasion. See discussion on ¯Matthew:16:21,26|.

rwp@Matthew:15:6 @{Ye have made void the word of God} (\ekur“sate ton logon tou theou\). It was a stinging indictment that laid bare the hollow pretence of their quibbles about handwashing. \Kuros\ means force or authority, \akuros\ is without authority, null and void. It is a late verb, \akuro“\ but in the LXX, Gal strkjv@3:17|; and in the papyri Adjective, verb, and substantive occur in legal phraseology like cancelling a will, etc. The moral force of God's law is annulled by their hairsplitting technicalities and immoral conduct.

rwp@Matthew:21:16 @{Thou hast perfected} (\katˆrtis“\). The quotation is from strkjv@Psalms:8:3| (LXX text). See strkjv@4:21| where the same verb is used for mending nets. Here it is the timeless aorist middle indicative with the perfective use of \kata-\. It was a stinging rebuke.

rwp@Romans:3:1 @{What advantage then hath the Jew?} (\ti oun to perisson tou Ioudaiou?\). Literally, "What then is the overplus of the Jew?" What does the Jew have over and above the Gentile? It is a pertinent question after the stinging indictment of the Jew in chapter 2. {The profit} (\hˆ “phelia\). The help. Old word, only here in N.T. See strkjv@Mark:8:36| for \“phelei\, the verb to profit.


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